THE TEN COMMANDMENTS ARE FOREVER!! II

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After the new Christian Church was established, there appeared immediately to be a conflict between the new Gentile converts and the Jews. Among the controversies were the consecration of food to idols and circumcision.

Since so much controversy was generated because of these subjects, till it was indeed recorded in the Bible, can you please tell me why the Jewish objection to the new Christians keeping Sunday (formerly a pagan day) after the resurrection of Jesus cannot be found there?

17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

It was obvious that Jesus said, "Think not that I am come to destroy. . . . ." because people were thinking that that was part of His mission: to destroy the law. And how so? In my estimation a law can be destroyed when an authoritative person informs others that it is no longer to be observed. What did Jesus do to make them think that? What did Jesus do to make the Jews think that He was come to destroy the law?

Most every time Jesus did something the Jews were apt to charge Him as a sinner for had something to do with the Sabbath: For healing on the Sabbath especially. The scripture therefore tells us that "till heaven and earth pass" (have they passed sir?) "one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law till all be fulfilled."

Here however is an interesting question: how do you destroy a law? Is this question too hard? Jesus said that He is not come to destroy, but to fulfill. How do you therefore destroy a law?

Our commonsense tells us that to destroy a law, you have to declare that it doesn't have to be kept. How likely is it therefore that the scripture can be reworded to come out like the following:

This may make sense to many, but I contend that this does not make sense to God's people.

We can see that the very words are quoted from the Ten Commandments! Did we not think that the Law was finished? Why would any of the Apostles quote from the Ten Commandments, when they are supposed to be acting like so many today in preaching to all that it is dangerous to keep the law? Do people today not tell us that to fulfill a law means to destroy it? If you fulfilled the law of insuring your vehicle, can you then uninsure it since that law is now no longer in effect?

What therefore does the word "fulfill" mean? The scripture says that not a jot or tittle--not a dotting of an "I" or a stroking of a "T" shall be moved till all be fulfilled. Does the word "fulfilled" mean to destroy or to take out of the way? If that is true, why does Jesus then say, Whosoever

THEREFORE . . . " (here meaning with reference to what was just said before)

It appears to me that the word "fulfilled" may have some meanings, but the idea that it means that the law is no longer to be obeyed is quite obviously ludicrous merely by the words that follow.

Jesus stated that the law is enforced till all be fulfilled. In order to be crafty, folk are coming in telling us that EVERYTHING had been fulfilled at the cross. They point to Christ's declaration, "It is Finished!" on the cross as proof. Isn't it strange that earlier Christ talked about a prophecy of Daniel in Matthew 24 that had not yet been fulfilled and was not even till His death? Christ was prophecying about the destruction of the temple at Jerusalem-something which took place 40 years after the cross!

Many are also trying to tell us that the all things being fulfilled that Christ talks about is referring to the very law itself. Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all (all the law) be fulfilled. They are saying that the law was fulfilled at the death of Christ, and therefore His statement "till heaven and earth pass" means not a thing.

According to them, Christ made that statement, "Till heaven and earth pass" only to make sure that what Christ is then stating remains true for only about a year or two till His death! Were those cataclysmic words placed there just to guarantee that what Christ says remains true for only a year or so? They are now therefore saying that Christ didn't come to destroy the law, but only came that it might be declared that we no longer have to keep it.

There are ways to see beyond this however, and we can start with the parallel scripture to this one in order to show whether the expression, "till all be fulfilled" is referring to the law itself or is referring to everything involved in human history, including the fulfillment of all prophecy.

From this we have the expression of heaven and earth passing again and we therefore have an eternal principle that shows the clear intention of the Lord upon this matter.

Let's therefore now again take the specific language of the bible so that we can understand what is happening here. The scripture tells us that till heaven and earth pass, the law will be in effect. Did heaven and earth pass at the cross? Did heaven and earth pass yet? The scriptures tell us plainly how heaven and earth will pass. It says:

10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.
11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat? - 2 Pet. 3:10-12

Did these things happen yet? This is showing how heaven and earth will pass away. Did this happen at the cross? Is Satan still alive today? Are there prophecies which state that he shall be destroyed? Are there prophecies relating to the Antichrist that have not been fulfilled yet? What then did Christ mean when he stated that the law will be in effect till all be fulfilled?

Even yet so, people are telling me however that those who break any of the least of the commandments of God and teach men so would be in heaven, but that they would just be called the least. Well if that was true, according to the very wording it is saying thusly: Whosoever shall contradict what I just said, will be called "the least" in heaven. He will disobey and contradict me, but he will still be in heaven anyway. ISN'T THAT WONDERFUL!!

What is the likelihood that an issue such as circumcision (which can be termed making a mountain out of something very small--if I can be so facetious) can generate all the controversy, contention and bitterness as it did in the days of the Apostolic Church, and yet a much more cataclysmic issue such as a change in the day of worship, or a change where there is no longer any day of worship since the sacrifice of Christ, can generate all the silence as it obviously has and as we can see for ourselves? We can see that today, this issue generates much literature, bitterness, animosity, etc. What is the likelihood that the issue of a day of worship which, unlike circumcision, affects men, women, boys and girls, can generate all the silence that it has?

Tis true, you may always remark that Adventists have been stating that scriptural silence is not proof for anything. You must however remember that you who have opposed them have always stated that silence is much proof. Therefore, in the issues presented to you here now, you have all the proof you would ever need!

When the Scribes and Pharisees brought Jesus before Annas the High Priest, why is it that they had a hard time finding an accusation against Him when any simpleton should have known that the Jewish leaders could put anyone to death on a truthful charge of sabbath-breaking? It is to my understanding that the Jewish leaders had power to put people to death on the charge of sabbath-breaking just so long as they received the sanction of the Roman government. That was precisely the reason why they brought Jesus to Pontius Pilate.

In Acts chapter 25:8-10, Paul makes an interesting statement to Festus. At that time it was stated that:

Here again, is this a marvellous demonstration of the intelligence of the Jewish people? Why don't they save time and accuse him of being a Sabbath-breaker. Were they really stupid here? Or was it true that Christ did not offend by His disregard of the Sabbath. To do so would be sin, and Christ did no sin. Under Jewish law and allowed by Roman law, any Jew can be put to death under that charge! Lo and behold! Apparently it is likely that charge was leveled against Paul. Yet notice the very crucial statement Paul makes in the very next verse:

Yet this is not the most striking part of the quotation, for, in today's movements fulfilling that great falling away which will give rise to the new "Christ-centered" world leader we know as Antichrist, most are telling us that they are actually keeping the law because it is written in their hearts through Christ. So, according to what they are telling us, they are like Paul. They are actually keeping the law. It's just that no one can see it outwardly. Under that premise it is to be understood that they can kill, murder, rape, etc. The law is still written in their hearts, and though no one can see it outwardly, it is a private fact inwardly between each individual and the Lord. In this scheme of things, the inevitable result is always the same: we actually find such people keeping every inch of the letter of the law EXCEPT the Sabbath command. Such beating around the bush is necessary instead of Paul plainly and outrightly coming out and telling us that all of the Ten Commandments are still in force except the Sabbath command.

Yet with this whole private in-the-heart tactic most used against the truth, comes these very shattering words from Paul himself; for, after he declared that he made no offense against the law of the Jews, the record continues:

"But Festus, willing to do the Jews a pleasure, answered Paul, and said, Wilt thou go up to Jerusalem, and there be judged of these things before me?

Then said Paul, I stand at Caesar's judgment seat, where I ought to be judged: TO THE JEWS HAVE I DONE NO WRONG, AS THOU VERY WELL KNOWEST." -- Acts 25:9, 10

The problem here is that Paul stated to the heathen dignitary that he was keeping the law, "AS THOU VERY WELL KNOWEST" meaning that the dignitary could see for himself with his own eyes that Paul was observing the law of the Jews.

The conclusion therefore is the following: The righteousness which Christ gives is genuine: finding its way to the outward actions, and indeed the entire being. This is confirmed by the Apostle John, who states a message of warning to his people to prevent them from being deceived in the way the people of today are being deceived by stating:

It will therefore clearly not be a private matter between the believer and Jesus, but all will see the good works and glorify the Father which is in heaven. - Matt. 5:16.